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NCLEX-RN Health Promotion and Maintenance practice questions

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These are original practice items written to the NCLEX-RN blueprint (4 options, no penalty for wrong answers), not actual exam questions. Try each one before you open the answer.

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Topics come from the tags on our own items, so this list reflects what the bank actually covers in Health Promotion and Maintenance rather than a generic syllabus.

Health Promotion and Maintenance sample questions

Question 1

A nurse in a community health screening clinic is assessing four adult clients. Which finding requires the nurse to obtain further assessment before allowing the client to leave the clinic?

  1. A A 30-year-old client with a blood pressure of 122/78 mmHg and a seasonal cough
  2. B A 60-year-old client with a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg and an irregular pulse
  3. C A 45-year-old client with a blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg and mild fatigue
  4. D A 55-year-old client with a blood pressure of 130/82 mmHg and occasional heartburn
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

An irregular pulse in a 60-year-old may indicate atrial fibrillation, which increases the risk of stroke. The nurse should check an apical pulse and arrange further evaluation, such as an ECG, before the client leaves.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: A blood pressure of 122/78 mm Hg is only in the elevated category, and a seasonal cough is not urgent.
C: A blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg needs routine follow-up, and mild fatigue alone is nonspecific.
D: Occasional heartburn is common, and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg needs routine follow-up, not immediate evaluation.

Question 2

A nurse is reviewing current recommended health screening guidelines with a group of clients at a community health fair. Which statement by the nurse about screening for colorectal cancer is accurate?

  1. A Adults with average risk should begin screening at age 65.
  2. B Adults with average risk should begin screening at age 30.
  3. C Adults with average risk should begin screening at age 50, only if male.
  4. D Adults with average risk should begin screening at age 45.
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Current guidelines recommend that adults with average risk begin colorectal cancer screening at age 45. Beginning screening at age 65 would delay detection well beyond the recommended start age and allow cancers to go undetected longer. Age 30 is too early for someone at average risk and is not supported by current guidelines. Screening recommendations apply to all adults with average risk and are not limited to male clients only.

Question 3

A 24-year-old primigravida at 39 weeks gestation is admitted in active labor. Cervical exam shows 5 cm dilation, 80% effacement, and station -1. The fetal heart rate tracing is Category I with moderate variability. The client requests an epidural for pain management. Which nursing action is most appropriate at this time?

  1. A Administer a bolus of 500 mL lactated Ringer’s solution before the anesthesiologist arrives.
  2. B Check the client’s platelet count from the admission labs and document the result.
  3. C Call the anesthesiologist immediately and obtain a signed consent form for the epidural.
  4. D Position the client in left lateral and encourage breathing techniques until the epidural is placed.
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

Epidural anesthesia blocks sympathetic nerves and can cause maternal hypotension, which reduces placental blood flow. Giving the ordered IV fluid bolus before the anesthesia provider arrives helps prevent this drop in blood pressure and prepares the client for the procedure.

Why the other options are wrong:
B: A routine platelet count is not required before an epidural in a healthy client, and documenting it does not prepare her for the procedure.
C: The anesthesia provider, not the nurse, explains the epidural and obtains consent.
D: Comfort measures are appropriate, but they do not prepare the client to prevent epidural-related hypotension.

Question 4

A 50-year-old male client with no significant medical history comes to a health fair. He reports that his father had a myocardial infarction at age 55. Which health screening should the nurse recommend as a priority for this client?

  1. A A fasting lipid panel to assess cholesterol levels.
  2. B A bone density scan to screen for osteoporosis.
  3. C A prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test to screen for prostate cancer.
  4. D A colonoscopy to screen for colorectal cancer.
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

A father with a myocardial infarction at 55 is a family history of early coronary disease, which raises this client's cardiovascular risk. A lipid panel identifies dyslipidemia, a modifiable risk factor that can be treated to lower that risk, so it is the priority screening suggested by his history.

Why the other options are wrong:
B: Bone density screening in men is generally reserved for age 70 or older or for specific risk factors.
C: PSA testing is an individual, shared decision, and nothing in his history points to prostate risk.
D: Colorectal cancer screening is also due at this age, but his family history of heart disease makes lipid assessment the priority here.

Question 5

A 55-year-old male client with no known cardiac history comes to the clinic for a routine physical. The nurse uses a stethoscope to auscultate the heart. Which technique is correct for assessing the apical pulse?

  1. A Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope at the left midclavicular line in the fifth intercostal space
  2. B Place the bell of the stethoscope at the right sternal border in the second intercostal space
  3. C Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope at the left sternal border in the fourth intercostal space
  4. D Place the bell of the stethoscope at the left midclavicular line in the fifth intercostal space
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

The apical pulse is heard at the point of maximal impulse, the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line. The diaphragm best transmits the high-pitched S1 and S2 sounds used to count the rate.

Why the other options are wrong:
B: The second right intercostal space at the sternal border is the aortic area, not the apex.
C: The fourth left intercostal space at the sternal border is the tricuspid area, not the apex.
D: The location is correct, but the bell is for low-pitched sounds; the diaphragm is preferred for counting the apical pulse.

Question 6

A 28-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks gestation is in active labor with contractions every 3 minutes. Cervical exam is 6 cm, 80% effaced, and 0 station. The fetal heart rate shows moderate variability with accelerations and no decelerations. The client asks for pain relief. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measure is most appropriate to suggest at this time?

  1. A Recommend deep breathing with a prolonged exhale through pursed lips
  2. B Encourage the client to lie supine with a pillow under the knees
  3. C Advise the client to hold her breath during each contraction
  4. D Suggest using a birthing ball with upright positioning between contractions
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Upright positioning and gentle movement on a birthing ball use gravity to aid fetal descent, open the pelvis and ease back pain. It is an effective nonpharmacologic choice in active labor with a reassuring fetal heart rate.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: Slow breathing can help, but it lacks the added benefit of upright positioning for comfort and labor progress at this stage.
B: Lying supine compresses the vena cava and aorta, reducing placental perfusion.
C: Breath holding during first-stage contractions increases tension and can reduce fetal oxygenation.

Question 7

A 45-year-old female client at a community health fair asks which cancer screening is most important for her age group. She has no family history of cancer and no current symptoms. Which screening should the nurse recommend?

  1. A Low-dose CT chest scan every year for smokers
  2. B Pap smear every 3 years until age 65
  3. C Mammography every 2 years starting at age 40
  4. D Colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 45
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

The correct recommendation is colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 45, because the USPSTF now advises average-risk adults to begin colorectal cancer screening at age 45. Mammography every 2 years starting at age 40 is recommended for average-risk women, but colon cancer screening is the new priority for this exact age. Pap smear every 3 years until age 65 is correct for cervical cancer but is already standard for younger women and does not address the new 45-year-old guideline. Low-dose CT chest scan every year for smokers is appropriate only for high-risk adults aged 50–80 with a significant smoking history, not for this asymptomatic nonsmoker.

Question 8

A 4-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic for a well-child visit. The mother reports that the child sometimes refuses to share toys and has frequent temper tantrums. Which statement by the nurse best reflects normal development for this age?

  1. A A 4-year-old should be able to share consistently and tantrums suggest a developmental delay
  2. B Refusing to share at age 4 may indicate a need for behavioral intervention and social skills training
  3. C Temper tantrums and difficulty sharing are typical for a 4-year-old who is developing autonomy
  4. D Frequent tantrums at this age are usually caused by inadequate limit-setting by the parents
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Temper tantrums and difficulty sharing are typical for a 4-year-old who is developing autonomy, because at this stage children are learning to assert independence and have not yet fully developed impulse control or empathy; these behaviors are normal in preschool development. Refusing to share at age 4 may indicate a need for behavioral intervention is incorrect because occasional refusal to share is expected and does not warrant intervention unless it is severe or persistent. Frequent tantrums at this age are usually caused by inadequate limit-setting is a common misconception; while limit-setting is important, tantrums are a normal part of emotional regulation development and not solely due to parenting style. A 4-year-old should be able to share consistently and tantrums suggest a developmental delay is false because consistent sharing is not achieved until later childhood, and tantrums alone do not indicate delay.

Question 9

An 80-year-old female client in a long-term care facility tells the nurse she feels tired and has lost interest in meals. She has a history of osteoarthritis and takes ibuprofen as needed. Vital signs are normal. Which age-related change should the nurse consider first?

  1. A Possible adverse effect of ibuprofen causing gastric irritation
  2. B Normal age-related decline in basal metabolic rate and appetite
  3. C Increased need for protein due to muscle loss from sarcopenia
  4. D Reduced taste bud sensitivity and decreased gastric motility
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Reduced taste bud sensitivity and decreased gastric motility are common age-related changes that can lead to decreased appetite and early satiety, making this the most direct physiologic explanation for her fatigue and disinterest in meals. Increased need for protein due to sarcopenia is true but does not primarily explain the loss of interest in food; it is a consequence rather than a cause. Normal age-related decline in basal metabolic rate and appetite is too vague and does not address the specific sensory and motility changes that affect eating behavior. Possible adverse effect of ibuprofen causing gastric irritation is a valid concern, but the question asks for an age-related change to consider first, and the client did not report pain or dyspepsia; the nurse should prioritize normal aging physiology before assuming a drug side effect.

Question 10

A 30-year-old client who gave birth vaginally 12 hours ago has a fundus firm at the umbilicus and moderate lochia rubra with no clots. The client's vital signs are temperature 37.2°C, heart rate 72/min, blood pressure 118/74 mm Hg. The client reports perineal pain rated 6 out of 10. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

  1. A Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to empty the bladder
  2. B Apply an ice pack to the perineum and offer ibuprofen 600 mg orally
  3. C Massage the fundus firmly until it becomes boggy
  4. D Notify the provider about possible retained placental fragments
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

Perineal pain after vaginal birth is common, and the other findings (firm fundus at the umbilicus, moderate lochia rubra without clots, normal vital signs) are expected. Ice to the perineum in the first 24 hours plus an oral NSAID such as ibuprofen is appropriate first-line comfort care.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: A firm fundus at the umbilicus shows no sign of bladder distention, so catheterization is not indicated.
C: Massage is used to firm a boggy uterus; this fundus is already firm, and massaging until it becomes boggy is backward.
D: A firm fundus and moderate lochia without clots are normal and do not suggest retained placental fragments.

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