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NCLEX-RN Physiological Adaptation practice questions
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These are original practice items written to the NCLEX-RN blueprint (4 options, no penalty for wrong answers), not actual exam questions. Try each one before you open the answer.
Practice by topic
Topics come from the tags on our own items, so this list reflects what the bank actually covers in Physiological Adaptation rather than a generic syllabus.
A 28-year-old client with acute asthma exacerbation is receiving a continuous albuterol nebulizer treatment. The client's respiratory rate is 38 breaths/min, SpO2 89% on 4 L oxygen via nasal cannula, and peak expiratory flow rate is 30% of predicted. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate next?
A Discontinue the nebulizer and administer intravenous aminophylline.
B Prepare for noninvasive positive pressure ventilation.
C Switch to a metered-dose inhaler with a spacer.
D Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Despite continuous albuterol, the client remains hypoxemic with an SpO2 of 89%, a respiratory rate of 38, and a peak flow of 30% of predicted. Correcting hypoxemia is the immediate need, so the nurse should anticipate higher-concentration oxygen by non-rebreather mask while other asthma treatment continues.
Why the other options are wrong:
A: Aminophylline is not recommended for acute asthma because of poor efficacy and toxicity, and stopping albuterol removes effective therapy.
B: Noninvasive ventilation is not a routine step in asthma; a client who tires despite treatment is prepared for intubation.
C: A client this breathless cannot use an inhaler effectively, and switching would reduce bronchodilator delivery.
Question 2
A 45-year-old client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with acute pancreatitis. The nurse notes severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, and vomiting. Vital signs: temperature 38.5°C, heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, respiratory rate 22 breaths/min. Which laboratory value is most consistent with this condition?
A Serum amylase 800 U/L
B Blood urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL
C Serum glucose 90 mg/dL
D Serum bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Acute pancreatitis releases pancreatic enzymes into the bloodstream. A serum amylase of 800 U/L is several times the upper limit of normal and, with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, is the finding most consistent with this condition.
Why the other options are wrong:
B: A BUN of 12 mg/dL is normal and does not suggest pancreatitis.
C: A glucose of 90 mg/dL is normal; pancreatitis more often raises glucose.
D: A bilirubin of 0.8 mg/dL is normal and does not support the diagnosis.
Question 3
A 58-year-old client post-abdominal surgery has a surgical wound with a closed drainage system. On day 3, the nurse observes that the wound drainage has changed from serosanguineous to purulent, and the client’s temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F). The wound edges are red and edematous. Which action should the nurse take first?
A Notify the healthcare provider of the change in wound status
B Remove the drainage system and apply a dry sterile dressing
C Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline and pack it
D Obtain a wound culture and then apply a sterile dressing
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Purulent drainage, fever of 38.6°C, and red, swollen wound edges on day 3 indicate a surgical site infection. The provider must be notified promptly to evaluate the wound and order cultures and antibiotics.
Why the other options are wrong:
B: Removing a surgical drain requires a provider order and does not treat the infection.
C: Irrigating and packing the wound requires an order and should follow the provider's evaluation.
D: A culture is usually needed, but it requires an order, and notifying the provider of the infection comes first.
Question 4
A 52-year-old client with diabetic ketoacidosis has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.22, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, HCO3 12 mEq/L, PaO2 95 mm Hg. The nurse reviews the client's serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. Which condition does the nurse identify?
A Mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis
B Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
C Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
D Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The pH of 7.22 shows acidemia, and the low bicarbonate (12 mEq/L) identifies a metabolic cause. The low PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg matches the expected respiratory compensation (1.5 x 12 + 8 = 26, plus or minus 2), and because the pH is still abnormal, compensation is partial.
Why the other options are wrong:
A: A mixed acidosis would show a normal or high PaCO2, but here it is low.
B: Metabolic alkalosis would show a high pH and a high bicarbonate.
D: Respiratory alkalosis would show a high pH with a low PaCO2 as the primary change.
Question 5
A 52-year-old client with acute myeloid leukemia is receiving their first dose of intravenous cytarabine. Fifteen minutes into the infusion, the client reports sudden chest tightness, dyspnea, and a feeling of throat swelling. Vital signs: heart rate 124 bpm, blood pressure 86/50 mm Hg, respiratory rate 28/min, oxygen saturation 89% on room air. The nurse notes urticaria on the client's trunk. What is the nurse's priority action?
A Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min and prepare for intubation.
B Stop the cytarabine infusion immediately and maintain the IV access.
C Administer epinephrine 0.3 mg intramuscularly in the anterolateral thigh.
D Slow the cytarabine infusion rate and administer diphenhydramine 50 mg IV.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Throat swelling, dyspnea, hypotension, hypoxemia and urticaria indicate anaphylaxis. The first step is to stop the infusion to end exposure to the drug while keeping IV access, then give epinephrine and call for help.
Why the other options are wrong:
A: Oxygen and airway support are needed, but the drug must be stopped first.
C: Epinephrine is the first-line drug and is given immediately after the infusion is stopped.
D: Slowing the infusion continues exposure, and an antihistamine alone cannot treat anaphylaxis.
Question 6
A 66-year-old client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the client and finds the respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation is 91%, and the client is using accessory muscles. Arterial blood gas results show pH 7.32, PaCO2 48 mm Hg, PaO2 58 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. The nurse notifies the provider. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate?
A Prepare for endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation due to acute respiratory failure.
B Administer albuterol 2.5 mg via nebulizer and reassess oxygen saturation in 15 minutes.
C Increase oxygen to 6 L/min via nasal cannula and repeat arterial blood gas in 1 hour.
D Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) with bi-level positive airway pressure.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
The ABG shows acute respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia (pH 7.32, PaCO2 48, PaO2 58), and the client is working hard to breathe despite oxygen. Bilevel noninvasive ventilation can support breathing, lower PaCO2, and improve oxygenation in an alert client who can protect the airway, often preventing intubation.
Why the other options are wrong:
A: Intubation is reserved for clients who fail or cannot tolerate noninvasive support or cannot protect the airway.
B: Albuterol treats bronchospasm, which is not described, and does not correct hypoventilation.
C: More nasal cannula oxygen may raise the PaO2 slightly but does not correct the rising PaCO2 or the work of breathing.
Question 7
A 78-year-old client in the intensive care unit with acute kidney injury has a serum creatinine of 4.2 mg/dL, BUN of 88 mg/dL, and urine output of 100 mL over the past 12 hours. The nurse reviews the most recent laboratory results and finds a serum potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which finding on the cardiac monitor requires immediate action?
A PR interval of 0.18 seconds
B First-degree atrioventricular block with a heart rate of 62/min
C U waves in the precordial leads
D Widened QRS complexes with absent P waves
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
With a potassium of 6.8 mEq/L, a widened QRS and absent P waves show severe conduction toxicity that can progress quickly to a sine-wave pattern, ventricular fibrillation, or asystole. This finding requires immediate treatment, beginning with IV calcium.
Why the other options are wrong:
A: A PR interval of 0.18 seconds is normal (0.12 to 0.20 seconds).
B: First-degree AV block with a rate of 62/min is a stable rhythm that needs monitoring, not emergency treatment.
C: U waves are associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
Question 8
A 72-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with acute dyspnea and a productive cough with thick yellow sputum. Vital signs: BP 140/88 mm Hg, HR 96/min, RR 28/min, temperature 38.4°C, oxygen saturation 89% on room air. Which nursing intervention is most important to implement first?
A Administer bronchodilator therapy via nebulizer as prescribed
B Start intravenous access with a 20-gauge catheter as prescribed
C Place the client in a high-Fowler's position and apply oxygen
D Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The client is hypoxemic with labored breathing, so sitting upright to maximize lung expansion and applying oxygen come first. In COPD, oxygen is titrated to a saturation of about 88% to 92%.
Why the other options are wrong:
A: Bronchodilators are essential but follow immediate positioning and oxygen in a hypoxemic client.
B: IV access is needed but does not address the immediate oxygenation problem.
D: A sputum culture guides antibiotic therapy but is not the first priority during respiratory distress.
Question 9
A 72-year-old client in a long-term care facility has a history of heart failure and is receiving furosemide 40 mg daily. The nurse notes that the client has a new onset of confusion, dry mouth, and muscle cramps. Vital signs are: blood pressure 102/68 mm Hg, heart rate 102 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Which laboratory value should the nurse review first?
A Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
B Serum creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
C Serum potassium 3.0 mEq/L
D Serum glucose 110 mg/dL
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Furosemide causes potassium loss, and a potassium of 3.0 mEq/L is clearly low. Hypokalemia explains the muscle cramps and can cause weakness, confusion, and dangerous dysrhythmias, so this value needs attention first.
Why the other options are wrong:
A: A sodium of 138 mEq/L is normal and does not explain the symptoms.
B: A creatinine of 1.1 mg/dL is within normal limits.
D: A glucose of 110 mg/dL is only slightly elevated and does not explain the cramps or confusion.
Question 10
A 76-year-old client with chronic kidney disease stage 4 is admitted to the medical unit with confusion and muscle weakness. The serum potassium level is 6.8 mEq/L. The nurse reviews the electrocardiogram and sees tall, peaked T waves. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A Administer intravenous regular insulin 10 units with 50 mL of 50% dextrose.
B Administer oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate 15 grams.
C Administer intravenous calcium gluconate 10% 10 mL over 5 minutes.
D Administer intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride at 100 mL per hour.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
A potassium of 6.8 mEq/L with peaked T waves shows that hyperkalemia is affecting the heart. IV calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane within minutes and lowers the risk of ventricular fibrillation, so it is given first, before measures that shift or remove potassium.
Why the other options are wrong:
A: Insulin with dextrose shifts potassium into cells and is the next step, but it does not protect the heart as quickly as calcium.
B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate acts slowly over hours and is not used for emergency treatment with ECG changes.
D: Normal saline does not lower potassium or protect the heart and may overload a client with stage 4 kidney disease.
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