12,241 verified 4-option questions Double-checked by independent solution

NCLEX-RN Reduction of Risk Potential practice questions

10 questions · answers open · no sign-up

These are original practice items written to the NCLEX-RN blueprint (4 options, no penalty for wrong answers), not actual exam questions. Try each one before you open the answer.

Practice by topic

Topics come from the tags on our own items, so this list reflects what the bank actually covers in Reduction of Risk Potential rather than a generic syllabus.

Reduction of Risk Potential sample questions

Question 1

A 72-year-old client is admitted to the telemetry unit with a diagnosis of dehydration. The nurse obtains vital signs: blood pressure 100/58 mm Hg, heart rate 108 beats/min, respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Which vital sign finding is most concerning and requires immediate intervention?

  1. A Heart rate 108 beats/min
  2. B Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
  3. C Blood pressure 100/58 mm Hg
  4. D Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

A heart rate of 108 is the most abnormal value and reflects compensation for reduced circulating volume. It signals the need for prompt fluid replacement before the blood pressure falls further.

Why the other options are wrong:
B: A respiratory rate of 22 is only mildly elevated and is not the most urgent finding.
C: A blood pressure of 100/58 is low-normal but not yet hypotensive, so it needs close monitoring rather than being the primary concern.
D: An oxygen saturation of 96% on room air is normal.

Question 2

A 48-year-old client undergoes an open colectomy for colon cancer. On postoperative day 3, the nurse assesses the client and finds a temperature of 38.9°C, heart rate 100 beats/min, blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, and the surgical wound has purulent drainage with a foul odor. Which finding indicates the most likely complication?

  1. A Serum lactate level of 0.8 mmol/L and normal coagulation studies.
  2. B Abdominal girth increased by 2 cm from the previous day.
  3. C Increased white blood cell count of 14,000/mm³ with left shift.
  4. D Bowel sounds are hypoactive in all four quadrants.
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Fever, tachycardia and purulent, foul-smelling drainage point to a surgical site infection. An elevated white blood cell count with a left shift (more immature neutrophils) confirms an active bacterial infection.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: A lactate of 0.8 mmol/L and normal coagulation studies are normal and do not support a complication.
B: A 2-cm increase in girth suggests mild distention and is less specific than a high WBC count with a left shift.
D: Hypoactive bowel sounds are common after colectomy while bowel function returns.

Question 3

A 50-year-old client with a history of cirrhosis is admitted with acute gastrointestinal bleeding. The nurse assesses the client and notes the following: heart rate 118 beats/min, blood pressure 90/56 mm Hg, respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 94% on room air. The client reports feeling lightheaded. Which nursing action should the nurse perform first?

  1. A Obtain a STAT complete blood count and coagulation panel
  2. B Notify the healthcare provider of the vital signs and symptoms
  3. C Prepare the client for an urgent upper endoscopy
  4. D Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 500 mL intravenously
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Tachycardia, hypotension and lightheadedness show hypovolemic shock from active bleeding. Restoring intravascular volume with an isotonic bolus, per protocol or prescription, is the first priority to maintain organ perfusion.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: Blood counts and coagulation studies guide care but do not correct the hemodynamic instability.
B: The provider must be notified, but restoring circulating volume comes first in an unstable client.
C: Endoscopy is the definitive treatment, but the client must be resuscitated and stabilized first.

Question 4

A 55-year-old client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents to the emergency department with sudden severe epigastric pain, board-like abdominal rigidity, and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. The nurse anticipates which diagnostic test to confirm the suspected complication?

  1. A Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy with biopsy.
  2. B Serum amylase and lipase levels.
  3. C Abdominal ultrasound of the gallbladder.
  4. D Upright chest radiograph for free air.
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Sudden severe epigastric pain with a board-like abdomen in a client with peptic ulcer disease suggests perforation. An upright chest radiograph showing free air under the diaphragm confirms it quickly.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: Endoscopy is avoided when perforation is suspected because insufflated air can worsen the leak.
B: Amylase and lipase evaluate pancreatitis and do not confirm a perforation.
C: A gallbladder ultrasound evaluates biliary disease, not a perforated ulcer.

Question 5

A 72-year-old client in the medical-surgical unit has a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. The nurse notes that the fluid in the water-seal chamber has stopped fluctuating and the client reports new-onset dyspnea with oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?

  1. A Notify the healthcare provider of the change in the client's condition
  2. B Increase the supplemental oxygen to 4 L/min via nasal cannula
  3. C Assess the chest tube insertion site and tubing for kinks or disconnection
  4. D Milk the chest tube toward the drainage collection chamber to clear clots
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Loss of tidaling with new dyspnea and hypoxemia suggests the drainage system is obstructed or disconnected. The nurse first checks the insertion site and tubing for kinks, clots or disconnection so the problem can be corrected right away.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: The provider should be informed, but a quick check of the system may reveal a correctable cause first.
B: Extra oxygen treats the symptom but not the blocked or disconnected system.
D: Milking or stripping the tubing can create dangerous negative pressure and is done only if prescribed after assessment.

Question 6

A 34-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Her heart rate is 108/min, blood pressure 104/72 mm Hg, respiratory rate 20/min, and temperature 38.1°C. The nurse notes abdominal distension, absent bowel sounds, and a serum calcium level of 7.8 mg/dL. Which complication should the nurse monitor for most closely?

  1. A Hypovolemic shock
  2. B Pleural effusion
  3. C Hyperglycemia
  4. D Pancreatic pseudocyst
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

Hypovolemic shock is the priority because acute pancreatitis causes third-spacing of fluids, leading to hypovolemia, hypotension, and tachycardia; the low serum calcium (7.8 mg/dL) further indicates severe disease. Hyperglycemia can occur but is not as immediately life-threatening as shock. Pleural effusion may develop but is a later complication. Pancreatic pseudocyst usually forms weeks after the acute episode, not in the initial presentation.

Question 7

A 55-year-old client with chronic kidney disease is scheduled for an arteriovenous fistula placement in the left forearm. The nurse is providing preoperative teaching. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

  1. A I will avoid having blood drawn from my left arm after the surgery
  2. B I can expect to hear a buzzing feeling over the fistula site soon after surgery
  3. C I will need to keep my left arm bent at the elbow for the first 24 hours
  4. D I should report any numbness or tingling in my left hand to the nurse
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

After fistula creation, the arm should stay extended and elevated to prevent kinking of the new access and to reduce swelling. Planning to keep the elbow bent shows a need for more teaching.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: Avoiding blood draws in the fistula arm is correct and protects the access.
B: A buzzing thrill and whooshing bruit are expected signs that the fistula is patent.
D: Numbness or tingling can signal ischemia or nerve injury and should be reported.

Question 8

A 55-year-old client with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is admitted for elective hernia repair. Preoperative laboratory results show serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L, serum creatinine 2.4 mg/dL, blood urea nitrogen 42 mg/dL, and hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL. Which laboratory value is most concerning for the perioperative period?

  1. A Blood urea nitrogen 42 mg/dL
  2. B Serum creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
  3. C Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
  4. D Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

A potassium of 5.8 mEq/L is elevated, and anesthesia, surgical tissue injury, and some anesthetic drugs can raise it further, increasing the risk of dangerous dysrhythmias. It is the value most likely to affect perioperative safety and must be reported and corrected before surgery.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: A BUN of 42 mg/dL is elevated but expected with stage 3 chronic kidney disease.
B: A creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL reflects the client's known chronic kidney disease and is not an acute threat.
D: A hemoglobin of 10.2 g/dL reflects mild anemia, which is common in chronic kidney disease.

Question 9

A 62-year-old client with type 2 diabetes is 2 hours post-hip arthroplasty and reports feeling shaky and anxious. The nurse notes a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg. The client's last insulin dose was 6 units of lispro given 3 hours ago with breakfast. Which action should the nurse take first?

  1. A Recheck the client's blood pressure in 15 minutes
  2. B Check the client's capillary blood glucose level now
  3. C Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice by mouth
  4. D Review the client's hemoglobin A1c result from admission
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

Shakiness, anxiety and tachycardia about 3 hours after rapid-acting insulin suggest hypoglycemia. A quick capillary glucose check confirms the problem and guides treatment, especially in a postoperative client who may not yet be allowed oral carbohydrates.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: Rechecking the blood pressure delays evaluating a possible glucose emergency.
C: When testing is quickly available, treatment follows confirmation, and oral intake may not be allowed yet after surgery.
D: A hemoglobin A1c reflects long-term control, not the current symptoms.

Question 10

A 30-year-old client admitted for observation after a motor vehicle collision has the following vital signs: heart rate 104/min, blood pressure 100/62 mm Hg, respiratory rate 22/min, oxygen saturation 97% on room air, and temperature 98.6°F (37.0°C). The client is alert and oriented, with no visible injuries. Which vital sign change should the nurse report to the provider as the earliest sign of potential hypovolemic shock?

  1. A Blood pressure of 100/62 mm Hg, which is at the lower end of the normal range.
  2. B Respiratory rate of 22/min, which is above the normal range of 12-20/min.
  3. C Heart rate of 104/min, which is above the normal resting range of 60-100/min.
  4. D Temperature of 98.6°F (37.0°C), which is within the normal range.
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Tachycardia is the earliest compensatory sign of blood loss and often appears before blood pressure falls. After a collision, a heart rate of 104 should be reported because it may signal occult bleeding.

Why the other options are wrong:
A: Blood pressure usually stays normal until significant volume is lost, so it is a later sign.
B: A respiratory rate of 22 may reflect pain or anxiety and is less specific than tachycardia.
D: A normal temperature is not a sign of shock.

The whole NCLEX-RN bank

2,666 verified questions with explanations, timed category tests and an 85-item full-length practice test, a review pool that brings back what you missed until you get it right, and an AI tutor that explains why. One payment per exam, or one bundle for all of them.

NCLEX-RN practice opens soon: 2,666 questions verified so far. Purchase opens automatically when the bank is complete. About the NCLEX-RN

Related pages

TEAS is a registered trademark of Assessment Technologies Institute, LLC; HESI is a registered trademark of Elsevier Inc. NCLEX and NCLEX-RN are registered trademarks of the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, Inc. (NCSBN). AdmitNurse is an independent practice service, not affiliated with or endorsed by any of these organizations.